In 1 John 1:5 we read και εστιν αυτη (and this is)
In 1 John 2:25 we read και αυτη εστιν (and this is)
Is there a difference grammatically? If so what is it that the writer is saying in 1:5 verses 2:25
Thank you for your help
GTM

First and foremost, I am no expert in Greek,
in textual criticism (which may relate in some way) so with that disclaimer, here's my 2 cents.
και εστιν αυτη could be a textual variant. If its something that deviates from "normal usage," In this case John's order of εστιν and αυτη, It could be due to variations with the manuscript traditions. You could always check the aparatus and see if the word order is different from manuscript to manuscript. so....
I have a limited Library when it comes to textual Criticism. But I did look at what I have and there was nothing that addressed this situation. But thank you for the idea. Maybe you or some one else has a better set of Tools when it comes to textual Criticism and can check out your sources.
My tools are fairly limited as well, I can take a look though; it would be funI'm currently posting from work, so I'm limited even more at this point in time. I'll take a look tommorrw morning and see if I come up with anything. I also have the bonus of a quiet house in the morning.
except for when my wife gets out her "Honey Do" list
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