peripatein wrote:(1) Line 247: It is in the neuter as it is most probably ἔστω. Hence, in the sense of expressing a wish, prior to the beginning of the ceremony -- let it be beautiful/good. Elision requires accentuation, yet not peremptorily on the penult. How do you reason?
Ah, I thought you meant ἔστε (with a similar issue with the accent). About ἔστω, I don't know how often a -ω would be elided.
About the accent, my reasoning was that normally the accent would be καλόν γ' ἐστί, but then the -ί gets elided and that pushes the accent back like the examples in the section in Smyth. There's a similar example at line 397 ἔνδον ἔστ’ Εὐριπίδης; and 900 ὅ τι γ’ ἔστ’ Ἀθάναις. I guess it's also possible that it's just the "emphatic" ἔστι to begin with, but in any case I think in context an indicative sounds best.
(2) Lines 255-6: How was the following translation arrived at "embrace you so firmly .. that you fart like a weasel"?
I have no idea. I don't really see how it's possible.
(3) Lines 257-8: A modal must be used with the subj., I reckon, hence may, instead of does.
This is about English, though, and too me it's natural to use just "does" here.
(4) Line 266: If ἕκτῳ ἔτει is to be translated "for six years", why isn't the conventional accusative employed?
My understanding is that with the ordinal, it stressed the relation to the present time. I think the the idea here is something like "in the sixth year I invoked you" which implies that "for six year I haven't invoked you". But I haven't come across this construction enough to really understand its nuances.
(5) Lines 271-5: What would be the literal translation? Is the subject Dikaiopolis? Why are the participles translated as infinitives?
Something like "For it is much sweeter, o Phales Phales, to find the youthful wood-carrying Thratta of Strymodoros stealing from Phelleus and grab her waist and raise her and throw her down and deflower her." I think it's implied that it's Dikaiopolis but it could also just be in general I guess. It's just that English isn't as flexible as Greek when it comes to participle so participle + infinitive usually sounds better in English as infinite + and + infinitive -- the meaning is the same.
(6) Line 283: You're most right about their being questions. Yet why commands? And by which indicator?
I think because of the imperatives right before. But there are other possibilities. They could be genuine questions, "you're not hitting him?", but it seems to me that the Chorus is getting impatient and meaning the questions as a request/command.