Sniffy wrote:agricola, -ae, m. - farmer. I understand that it is masculine, but does the -ae make it feminine? I really do not understand how the -ae or for other words etc -ii , -i What does all this mean?
Dictionary entries are generally given with the nominative, then the genitive form. Very often, the genitive form shares the same stem as the nominative form, so only the suffix changes. The -ae only means that the genitive of "agricola" is "agricolae"; gender doesn't enter into it.
The purpose of providing the noun and its genitive is to allow you to easily identify which declension the word is in. Any word following the -a, -ae pattern is a first-declension noun. Almost all first-declension nouns are feminine, but some words like "athleta", "nauta", and, indeed, "agricola", are exceptions. (Almost all of the exceptions, if not all of them, refer to people or are place names.) Once you know that the word is a first-declension noun, you know that the accusative is "agricolam", its genitive plural is "agricolārum", etc.
1. Nōn Fortūna sed sapientia bonīs Remedium malae īrae in bellō dat.
-> He gives good wisdom not fortune to evil men to cure the anger in (of) war.
Not Fortune but wisdom gives good people the remedy for [lit. 'of'] bad anger in war.
2. In agrīs agricolae valent, in fōrmā bellae puellae valent.
-> The farmer's wife (or female farmers?) on the farm is well, they are beautiful and charming as well.
The farmers flourish [lit. "are well"] in the fields; the pretty girls flourish in beauty. (at least, that's the best I can make of it...)
3. Exitium bellī terret populum Romānum, sed avāri sunt malī et bellum amant.
-> The destruction of war terrifies the Roman people (men?), but there are greedy men who are evil that love war.
Almost. "...but greedy men are evil and love war."