modus.irrealis wrote:Yes, and it would probably also change ὦν to ἄ -- I don't think the double genitive object construction is very common (it's also the reason I wouldn't say there's an implied object here but I can't prove that ).
ἀκούειν ᾧν ἂν λέγω seemed at first natural seeing this relative clause occurred frequently so far, but never
in such attraction that "the thing heard" is in gen. as well. Now, I see in LSJ that it can happen, just not
as often, like you said.
modus.irrealis wrote:Just in case, let me mention that παρέχω ἐμαυτὸν ἐρωτᾶν here means "I offer myself to be asked". I thought it was a good example of a Greek active infinitive that sort of has a passive sense (at least from the English perspective), but I looked at the translation on perseus and they have "but I offer myself alike to rich and poor; I ask questions, and whoever wishes may answer and hear what I say" which I'm sure is wrong. Jowett has "but anyone, whether he be rich or poor, may ask and answer me and listen to my words" which is my understanding as well.
My Hebrew commentary also took ἀποκρινόμενος as referring to Socrates, as I answer
. It doesn't add up with the grammar but
then again, if he offer himself to be asked
(I also thought it was an inf. of purpose), why would the person asking be answering?