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Why "τῃ"?

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Why "τῃ"?

Postby French » Sun Sep 12, 2010 3:25 pm

I got this out of Sidgwick's First Greek Writer.

The part of the sentence in question to translate was "Tomorrow, perhaps, there will be a battle."

And the answer key gave: "τῇ αὔριον ἴσως μάχη ἔσται"

What I don't understand is where the "τῇ" comes in.

Thanks for any help with this,
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Re: Why "τῃ"?

Postby NateD26 » Sun Sep 12, 2010 4:10 pm

To express a point in time in/on/at which an event occurs, the prepositional phrase with ἐν + dat.
was often written as a simple dative without ἐν. [Tomorrow in English is basically on the morrow.]

LSJ/Middle-Liddell noted that the fem. gender is due to its substantive use in Attic, ἡ αὔριον (ἡμέρα), the morrow.
[Though we also find ὁ αὔριον χρόνος.]

Also, §37 in the book (p.38 on the pdf here) has exactly this use of the dative.
Nate.
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Re: Why "τῃ"?

Postby French » Sun Sep 12, 2010 5:48 pm

Thank you, Nate!

I thought it might be something like that...but now I see what happens.
Much appreciated,
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