I got this out of Sidgwick's First Greek Writer.
The part of the sentence in question to translate was "Tomorrow, perhaps, there will be a battle."
And the answer key gave: "τῇ αὔριον ἴσως μάχη ἔσται"
What I don't understand is where the "τῇ" comes in.
Thanks for any help with this,
French
Why "τῃ"?
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Re: Why "τῃ"?
To express a point in time in/on/at which an event occurs, the prepositional phrase with ἐν + dat.
was often written as a simple dative without ἐν. [Tomorrow in English is basically on the morrow.]
LSJ/Middle-Liddell noted that the fem. gender is due to its substantive use in Attic, ἡ αὔριον (ἡμέρα), the morrow.
[Though we also find ὁ αὔριον χρόνος.]
Also, §37 in the book (p.38 on the pdf here) has exactly this use of the dative.
was often written as a simple dative without ἐν. [Tomorrow in English is basically on the morrow.]
LSJ/Middle-Liddell noted that the fem. gender is due to its substantive use in Attic, ἡ αὔριον (ἡμέρα), the morrow.
[Though we also find ὁ αὔριον χρόνος.]
Also, §37 in the book (p.38 on the pdf here) has exactly this use of the dative.
Nate.
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Re: Why "τῃ"?
Thank you, Nate!
I thought it might be something like that...but now I see what happens.
Much appreciated,
French
I thought it might be something like that...but now I see what happens.
Much appreciated,
French