Quia + accusative

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brookter
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Quia + accusative

Post by brookter »

In a previous post, Scribo wrote Quia vocabulam meam graecam multam parvam est! . I didn't want to disrupt the flow of a really interesting discussion, so I thought I'd create a separate thread.

Why is this in the accusative? Does quia always take this case (in my admittedly very brief study so far, I confess I hadn't noticed this). Or is there some sort of implied indirect speech, which I think would take the accusative - but then wouldn't parvam est have to be parvam esse?

Sorry if I'm getting confused....

David

Imber Ranae
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Re: Quia + accusative

Post by Imber Ranae »

It shouldn't be. I'd have said: ...quia verborum Graecorum mea copia valde exilis [or tenuissima] est.
Ex mala malo
bono malo uesci
quam ex bona malo
malo malo malo.

Screwdog
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Re: Quia + accusative

Post by Screwdog »

Hey there,

I think you might be thinking quia is a preposition when in fact it is a conjunction that simply means "because."

Good luck!

jamesbath
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Re: Quia + accusative

Post by jamesbath »

Imber Ranae wrote:It shouldn't be. I'd have said: ...quia verborum Graecorum mea copia valde exilis [or tenuissima] est.
How about this? ...quia vocabularium meum Graecum est multum parvum (or paucum).

brookter
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Re: Quia + accusative

Post by brookter »

Screwdog wrote:Hey there,

I think you might be thinking quia is a preposition when in fact it is a conjunction that simply means "because."

Good luck!
Well, actually I was wondering why the person I quoted had apparently used the accusative with quia, and whether it was a common usage. It seemed odd precisely because I thought quia was a conjunction meaning because.... All responses so far (and thank you for them) offer alternatives rather than explanations, so should I take it from that the original was incorrect?

By the way, I asked out of genuine curiosity, not to try to pick holes in anyone's grammar, a task for which I am wholly unqualified.

Thanks

David

David

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