NateD26 wrote:Only thing I don't understand is why was the participle negated with μή?
Imber Ranae wrote:I think οὐδ᾽ and μὴ...δὲ (= μηδέ) are correlative conjunctions.
modus.irrealis wrote:How would you understand the sentence? (It's just that I'm not clear on what you mean here.)
I took the οὐδ' ... ἑνί as being the emphatic form of οὐδείς.
Users browsing this forum: Yahoo [Bot] and 43 guests