ἐμπεπλήκασιν ὑμῶν τὰ ὦτα καὶ πάλαι καὶ σφοδρῶς διαβάλλοντες.
If I wanna say in Greek "I'm doing x by doing y", would "by doing y" be a pariticple in the nominative
I read this sentence as something like "[inasmuch as they are so and so,]
they have long filled your ears by vehemently slandering as well."
Grammar wise, would the participle in such a sense be in nom. or dat.?
Verbs of filling require the thing with which something is filled to be in the genitive,
and rarely in the dative (Smyth 1369, 1508b).
The 1966 translation @Perseus, however, translated the nominative participle as "with vehement slanders".
I assume, then, that the translator read the participle as assimilated to nom., for some reason, from διαβαλλόντων.