NateD26 wrote:I struggled initially to understand why the participle is in gen., but I looked at my commentary
for clarification (just like the other sentence, the verb δεῖ is impersonal, and because of ἐμήν,
the part. must agree with gen. case).
But I cannot understand why the purpose clause would be in the opt. My commentary says
that because the participle πονοῦντος stands for ὅς...ἐπόνουν (I suck at relatives...i don't get why ὅς and not οὕς)
the verb in the purpose clause is in the opt. in place of the subj. I do not understand
why a secondary clause as ὥσπερ would have such effect on the main sentence.
NateD26 wrote:But by his explanation, why wouldn't it be subjunctive?
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