spiphany wrote:I'm not sure how you were translating ἐνταῦθα, but just in case, since it's easy to slip up and unconsciously carry over idioms from one language into another: "there is" in English would not be generally correspond to a place adverb in Greek -- when you think about it, there's nothing about the expression that describes location, it's more of a place-holder required by the rules of syntax (a paraphrase of "x exists").
NateD26 wrote:* Should I use here alleged instead, seeing that in 21b5 Plato used φάσκων instead of εἰπών?
modus.irrealis wrote:I think "said" is better (it can imply "alleged" if the context is right anyway). The aorist εἰπών couldn't be used in 21b as far as I can see, so you just have φάσκων (as the present participle of φημί).
modus.irrealis wrote:I didn't interpret the participle as equivalent to an imperfect but to a present mostly because of λέγει being present, τί λέγει φάσκων... = what does it mean, when it says.../by saying...
Users browsing this forum: Google Adsense [Bot] and 55 guests