Hi, this is my first topic here, so please correct me if I broke any rules. It's still the fastest way to learn.
My question is about a strange use of imperfect in a purpose (?) clause. It is from Prometheus Bound, Line 152
εἰ γάρ μ᾽ ὑπὸ γῆν νέρθεν θ᾽ Ἅιδου ... ἧκεν,
... ὡς μήτε θεὸς μήτε τις ἄλλος τοῖσδ᾽ ἐπεγήθει.
translated as: "Oh if only he had hurled me below the earth, ... so that neither god nor any other might have gloated over this agony I feel!"
Now, the first part is aorist which is, I believe, because of contrafactual condition in the past, (although I'm not even entirely sure about this). But, why is the imperfect (ἐπεγήθει) used in the second part? Is it 1) the apodosis of a contrafactual conditional, or 2) the final clause of an unfulfilled condition, as in Godwin 216(3), ...or something else? I understand what is meant by the usage, but I just want a clarification, and I may have another question after this.
(What should I do if my question sounds too trivial for a new topic? Should I bump an earlier related topic instead of starting my own? Just like to clear this up.)
Thank you in advance.