chrisb wrote:Your translation sounds fine to me, but why not 'Phoebus Apollo' in line 64?
In answer to your other query, I think that the aorist participle is used precisely because it suggests that the action has been completed. As you say, it is a question of aspect. The aorist participle is used because it regards the action as a single completed event.
Paul wrote:Hi Bert,
[face=SPIonic]ei)/ te ... ei)/ te[/face] is how Homer typically says 'either .. or'.
According to Denniston [face=SPIonic]h)= toi[/face] literally meant 'Verily, I tell you.' But he goes on to say that that [face=SPIonic]toi[/face] has probably lost some of its vividness. Hence you typically see [face=SPIonic]h)= toi[/face] translated simply as 'truly', 'surely', 'indeed'.
Your right. It is imperfect. Thanks.Paul wrote:
[face=SPIonic]o(/ ge[/face] = 'even he'. So a literal, albeit awkward, rendering to incorporate those 4 words might be:
"Truly even he thus having spoken was sitting down.."
(Your translation is much better.)
BTW: I think that [face=SPIonic]e(/zeto[/face] is imperfect, not aorist.
Bert wrote:Is there a time relationship at all between a participle and the main verb?
Users browsing this forum: Bing [Bot] and 13 guests