I'm kinda having a hard time wrapping my mind around interrogative and relative pronouns. I guess the problem is that they are both the same, except for a few words. That's where I'm getting stuck.
In the Latine Disco for Orberg's Lingua Latina, it says, "At the end of the chapter, you find sentences with both the interrogative and the relative pronouns, e.g. Quis est puer qui ridet? In the feminine, the two pronouns are identical: Quae est puella quae plorat (the relative quae refers to puella)"
In Wheelock's Latin, it says, "The interrogative pronoun quis? quid? is declined in the plural exactly as the relative pronoun is. In the singular, also, it follows the pattern of the relative with TWO exceptions: (1) the masculine and the feminine have the same forms; (2) the nominative forms have the distinct spelling quis, quid.
So, according to Orberg, there IS a difference between the nominative masculine singular and the nominative feminine singular interrogative pronouns (quis and quae). According to Wheelock, there's not a difference (both would be quis).
So, the question is multiple choice:
a) Orberg doesn't know what he's talking about
b) Wheelock has his head in his nether regions
c) They are actually both right, and the Romans followed both formats
d) If c is true, screw both of those guys for being so confusing.
Thanks,
-smythe