NateD26 wrote:why is ἄλλος in plural here? does it still mean "in one thing after another"?
NateD26 wrote:Throughout the Apology, we see this verb used in this manner with the jury in mind. Why was it changed here?
What did Meletus do/say at that point which made Socrates directly ask of him to not cause a disturbance?
modus.irrealis wrote:...and later when Meletus does finally answer, he says "ὡς ὤνησας ὅτι μόγις ἀπεκρίνω ὑπὸ τουτωνὶ ἀναγκαζόμενος",
so Meletus was doing something that required the jury to step in and force him to answer, rather than the jury doing something that didn't
allow Meletus to answer.
Users browsing this forum: Alexa [Bot], WidenWastea and 70 guests