Good question! I had to read that three or four times, and changed my mind with almost every reading
But my current opinion, which I think I'm sticking with, is that the main clause is οὐδόν τε δρύϊνον προσεβήσετο, and the τε is introducing the first half of a coordination. The relative clause and the description of the τέκτων's work delays this for a while; then you finally get the second half when αὐτίκ᾽ ἄρ᾽ ἥ γε resumes the narration of Penelope's actions.... It's not strictly parallel with what the τε might have led you to expect; I don't think this is uncommon in Homer after digressions of several lines.... But even so, that's probably what led Von Der Muhll to punctuate the text as he did. Stanford's commentary follows the OCT punctuation, and doesn't have anything to say about it in this passage.
EDIT: PS: I just noticed that Stanford puts a comma at the end of line 42, which helps to set that off as the end of the temporal clause.