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Postby gigas phoberos » Wed Feb 24, 2010 10:41 pm

In Latin prepositions are often omitted because the noun cases(ablatives, accusative) can usually convey meaning
without them. So what about Greek? it too has noun cases so why aren't prepositions omitted like in Latin.

(btw, I like prepositions, they make the reading smoother and easier to understand).
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gigas phoberos
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Re: prepositions

Postby annis » Thu Feb 25, 2010 1:09 am

Gigas, can you make your flag more wee?

In Homer and later Greek verse you can use a bare accusative to indicate a destination with verbs of motion. Very, very rarely a dative may be used to indicate a place (no motion, "at"), again only as a feature of verse style.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Re: prepositions

Postby modus.irrealis » Thu Feb 25, 2010 3:33 am

There's also the instrumental dative which can be used without a preposition, similar to one of the uses of the ablative in Latin, and lots of time relations are also shown with bare cases.
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