NT text from Athenaze

[Lina]

No accents, sorry. I am curious about interpretation of the below passage.

Ταυτην εποιησεν αρχην των σημειων ο Ιησους εν Κανα της Γαλιλαιας και εφανερωσεν την δουξαν αυτου…

Is there anything in the way this is written that distinguishes whether this was:
1. The beginning/first of Jesus’ signs and he did the sign in Cana
2. The beginning/first of the signs Jesus did in Cana

[NateD26]

I think it is more the first option you've suggested due to the addition of καὶ ἐφανέρωσεν τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ
had it not been added, the second option would have been the default (location of action, but first action within that location).

there is a third possibility however, that his previous signs elsewhere up to this first one in Cana weren't so grand as to lend him his good
repute/glory (the heresy! )

of course, i haven't read anything in the new testament to actually know if this was (at least from what is written) the first sign he'd ever performed. others who have, I'm sure, will reply soon enough.

[annis]

With accents —
ταύτην ἐποίησεν ἀρχὴν τῶν σημείων ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἐν Κανὰ τῆς Γαλιλαίας.

This Jesus made (as) a beginning/first of his signs in Cana...

ταύτην cannot be attributive here — the thing it goes with has no article.