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Def. Art. o

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Def. Art. o

Postby gigas phoberos » Tue Oct 20, 2009 3:39 pm

Why does the def. art. o sometimes have an accent mark?
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gigas phoberos
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Re: Def. Art. o

Postby NateD26 » Tue Oct 20, 2009 5:30 pm

When a proclitic word is followed by an enclitic, the proclitic will receive the acute accent.
ὅ τε πατὴρ καὶ ὁ παῖς...

if it is followed by several enclitics, both the proclitic and all the enclitics other than the last
will normally receive an acute.

εἴ γέ τις ἄνθρωπος ταῦτα ποιοῖ...

Here is a detailed explanation:
http://socrates.berkeley.edu/~ancgreek/ ... icsU5.html

I would love to know though, why a proclitic as οὐ when followed by enclitic εἰμί doesn't receive acute
but is written οὐκ εἰμί. does it have something to do with only monosyllable enclitics (τε, γε, τις, etc.) will "throw"
their accent back to the proclitic or a special case for εἰμί declension?
Nate.
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Re: Def. Art. o

Postby spiphany » Tue Oct 20, 2009 6:35 pm

Maybe you know this, but the relative pronoun also looks like the definite article in form except that it has an accent.
IPHIGENIE: Kann uns zum Vaterland die Fremde werden?
ARKAS: Und dir ist fremd das Vaterland geworden.
IPHIGENIE: Das ist's, warum mein blutend Herz nicht heilt.
(Goethe, Iphigenie auf Tauris)
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Re: Def. Art. o

Postby cb » Tue Oct 20, 2009 9:46 pm

hi, also some editors accent the def art when it is used demonstratively or anaphorically. see the bottom of pg 136 of probert 2003 on accentuation (photo sorry, no scanner):

http://mhninaeide.webs.com/probert271.JPG

cheers, chad :)
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