blutoonwithcarrotandnail wrote:[Noun stem]... and what are its use besides classification?
blutoonwithcarrotandnail wrote:what is ARCA used for? i do not see any tenses being formed from it
such as present or perfect past participle.
blutoonwithcarrotandnail wrote:or is the word ARCA just a theory of how the word is formed. i dont see
the book saying 'take ARCA and add the letters +M' or anythign to indicate
adrianus wrote:Yes, it is a theory of word formation, and sometimes confusing, I think. Yes, in language learning to know the word root serves principally (exclusively?) in word classification, as you say.
Benedarius wrote: Arca has the stem "arc", but yes, arc means nothing in Latin. The only reason you ever think about arc is so that you can add a, ae etc. to it to form all of its different forms.
there is a difference in stem between ARCA- and ARC-
ARX [ARC-] and ARCA form their dative and accusative by receiving -I and -M at the end of the stem, so the result is ARCI /ARCAI [--> ARCAE] and ARCEM / ARCAM respectively.
<TR><TD>GENDER</TD><TD>Decl. 1</TD><TD>p/12</TD><TD>Decl. 2</TD><TD>p/12</TD><TD>Decl. 3i</TD><TD>p/12</TD><TD>Decl. 3c</TD><TD>p/12</TD><TD>Decl. 4</TD><TD>p/12</TD><TD>Decl. 5</TD><TD>p/12</TD></TR>
NuclearWarhead wrote:Unfortunately, statistics aren't much worth without interpretation.
The way I did the sums does take that into account, NuclearWarhead, because that I class as an ambiguous case, "-um/-om", "-us/-os", "-em/-im", and the program includes it and other exotic and pre-classical instances. (Not that those are just pre-classical because -os/-us, om/um, "-em/-im" survive into classical Latin, too.) No one would normally talk in statistics but they are useful here in questioning generalizations. That's the only reason I'm offering them, and I don't say they're 100% accurate either, just suggestive and quickly done.NuclearWarhead wrote:For instance, it is purely convention that we spell it "dominus" and not "dominos" in the nom.sg., and the statistics don't take that into account.
Essorant wrote:Are there any recorded examples in Latin where the plural ending -i is -oi as in Greek?
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modus.irrealis wrote:Old Latin also had -oi for the nominative plural which changed to -i. See the preview at http://books.google.ca/books?id=O7z4Sl- ... #PPA243,M1 for example.
No problem. Willingly. But who knows, I might be totally wrong, for I'm a pretty unreliable witness. I just read bits and pieces and, doing that, one misses many things and sometimes you miss the big picture.modus.irrealis wrote:Interesting, thanks. I had always just assumed that it was found in the remains of Old Latin.