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κατὰ μὲν ... κατὰ δὲ ... ?

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κατὰ μὲν ... κατὰ δὲ ... ?

Postby anglicus » Sun May 10, 2009 8:13 pm

From Herodotus 3.126:

"ὁ δὲ ἐν ταύτῃ τῇ ταραχῇ κατὰ μὲν ἔκτεινε Μιτροβάτεα τὸν ἐκ Δασκυλείου ὕπαρχον ... κατὰ δὲ τοῦ Μιτροβάτεω τὸν παῖδα Κρανάσπην..."

(http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text.jsp?doc=Hdt.+3.126&fromdoc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0125)

I was wondering if anyone had some insight into what the function of κατά might be here.

I'm thinking it's probably tmesis of κατέκτεινε, with the ἔκτεινε part merely implied in the δέ clause, but is it a common (or at least known) practice to repeat the prefix without the rest of the verb like that?

If it's not that, then is there some special meaning that κατά adds to a μὲν ... δὲ ... construction? The translations I've looked at don't seem to suggest that, though.
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Re: κατὰ μὲν ... κατὰ δὲ ... ?

Postby modus.irrealis » Sun May 10, 2009 9:55 pm

Yup, it's tmesis. As for only the preposition is repeated, I can't say why for sure, but you can see more examples from Herodotus at http://books.google.ca/books?id=bwsAAAA ... #PPA314,M1 in 619, Anmerk 1.
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Re: κατὰ μὲν ... κατὰ δὲ ... ?

Postby anglicus » Mon May 11, 2009 12:28 am

OK, thanks a lot. I'll have to download a copy of that. None of my grammar books go into that much detail about tmesis.
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Re: κατὰ μὲν ... κατὰ δὲ ... ?

Postby Swth\r » Wed May 13, 2009 7:27 pm

Instead of κατέκτεινε μέν... κατέκτεινε δέ ... As "modus" already said it is "tmesis" (division of the pre-verbal preposition from the verb itslelf)
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