bjk wrote:Are their any studies that speaking and hearing benefits learning over just reading for comprehension?
modus.irrealis wrote:I don't know about studies but this seems to be an extremely widespread position among second language teachers. And we are hardwired to learn spoken language, not written language.
modus.irrealis wrote:One frustrating thing about the Modern Greek pronunciation (when used for Ancient Greek) is that you don't distinguish the forms of ἡμεῖς and ὑμεῖς. It seems to me that in the vast majority of cases, either word makes sense in context, so unless you already know what's being said (or can see it written), you can never be sure what's being said.
modus.irrealis wrote:One frustrating thing about the Modern Greek pronunciation (when used for Ancient Greek) is that you don't distinguish the forms of ἡμεῖς and ὑμεῖς. It seems to me that in the vast majority of cases, either word makes sense in context, so unless you already know what's being said (or can see it written), you can never be sure what's being said.
theodoros wrote:modus.irrealis wrote:One frustrating thing about the Modern Greek pronunciation (when used for Ancient Greek) is that you don't distinguish the forms of ἡμεῖς and ὑμεῖς. It seems to me that in the vast majority of cases, either word makes sense in context, so unless you already know what's being said (or can see it written), you can never be sure what's being said.
Would be preferable for an Anglophone to pronounce the letter k in the word knight to distinguish it by the word night? And what would be the preferred reading in the Greek alphabet: νάιτ or κνίγγχτ?
modus.irrealis wrote:I see what you mean, but it's not really the language here that's frustrating -- it's just there's a frustrating side effect of the modern pronunciation. The two words were distinguished when the New Testament for example was written. But still, what's frustrating is how common this confusion is. Does any language fail to distinguish the 1st and 2nd person pronouns? That just seems like the kind of ambiguity that a language couldn't sustain.
IreneY wrote:You don'tSure, I can see your point in the case of the personal pronoun but convincing people to use a different pronunciation system from their native one for just two words? (The possible MG-pronunciation homonyms' meaning for all other cases can be determined by context). Nah!
Note just to be a true curmudgeon: It has nothing to do with pronunciation but the fact that "you" can refer to one or many is quite frustrating you know![]()
theodoros wrote:modus.irrealis wrote:One frustrating thing about the Modern Greek pronunciation (when used for Ancient Greek) is that you don't distinguish the forms of ἡμεῖς and ὑμεῖς. It seems to me that in the vast majority of cases, either word makes sense in context, so unless you already know what's being said (or can see it written), you can never be sure what's being said.
Would be preferable for an Anglophone to pronounce the letter k in the word knight to distinguish it by the word night? And what would be the preferred reading in the Greek alphabet: νάιτ or κνίγγχτ?
bedwere wrote:Are there groups in Greece where people speak the ancient language with the modern pronunciation?
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