Does just the rule governing what's nearer to the word sequenti apply here,—so that I should write the dative with aequalis and not ablative with minus. I know the ablative of sequens is sequenti, too, but I'm just wondering about the principle. And there's no need for quam with minus here, is there (for instances when the two cases are not spelled the same)?"The mathematical symbol ≤ means that what is to the left is less than, or equal to, what is to the right" = "Signum ≤ mathematicum praecedens minus vel aequale sequenti esse significat"
so, id est, "minus vel aequale alicui"
Aptane solùm hîc est regula proximitatis, quae, nisi fallor, dicit dativum "sequens" verbi casum cum "aequalis" adverbio potius quàm ablativum cum "aequalis" adjectivo scribendum esse,—et sinè "quam" verbo cum "minus" quià inutile? Orthographiam alterutrius casuum illorum cum "sequens" dictione eandem esse scio, nihilominùs autem quaestionem penso?