Validity of expression.

[peripatein]

Dear Members,

Is the following a valid phrase grammatically/syntactically - kalos kagathos t'anax? Would ancient Greek usually arrange the words differently to express the same notion?

As always, any means of reply would be most appreciated.

Sincerely,
Peripatein.

[xanthos64]

Hi
To me it looks fine. The phrase looks like a fragment from epic, perhaps translated as "a lord both good and noble". I think Homer used the kai . . . te construction the same way later Greek used the kai . . . kai, or the te . . . te constructions.
Regards,

[annis]

Is the following a valid phrase grammatically/syntactically - kalos kagathos t'anax? Would ancient Greek usually arrange the words differently to express the same notion?

What are you trying to say and what is the context? I have two problems with this phrase. First, καλὸς κἀγαθός is a classical phrase, but the noun ἄναξ is archaic. I wouldn't expect these to occur together in the same phrase very often, except perhaps in drama. Second, kalos kagathos still has a καί hiding in there. Even if the phrase is practically a single word, the use of καί and τε this way together is like saying "noble and and good." The only time I found τε in the area of the phrase was with καλός τε καὶ ἀγαθός.

[Swth\r]

As far as I know, the parataxis with copulative conjunctions is ...τε και..., and not και... ...τε. And of course it can never be ... και ...τε.
Even more analytically the options are:

καλός καί αγαθός - καλός καγαθός
καλός τε καί αγαθός - καλός τε καγαθός
καί καλός καί αγαθός (more emphatic)
καλός τε αγαθός τε

And never:

καλός τε αγαθός
και καλός αγαθός τε
καλός και αγαθός τε