My first question here is regarding the usage of μὴ with the participle: here there is clearly no conditional or general force to the participle, so why is μὴ used to negate it?
Here is WIlliam Goodwin's note on the two bolded infinitives
the bidding me... to be crowned... and the crown to be proclaimed in the theatre(στεφανοῦν and ἀνειπεῖν in the usual active form)
So, even though it must be translated as a passive infinitive, the active is retained to preserve the original sense of the decree. Is that what Goodwin is saying?