i've been reading Matthew lately, and repeatedly i find the phrase:
o ἔχων ὦτα ἀκούειν ἀκουέτω.
(hmm... i hope that will show up alright...)
i keep wondering whether this is grammatically good Greek. I'm very much a novice still, but i wonder whether there shouldn't be an article between w)=ta and a)kou/ein, particularly the genitive 'tou='.
I've checked my dutch bible which has "oren om te horen", and seems to confirm my suspicion. Similarly in the Vulgate, it reads "qui habet aures audiendi audiat", and i gather from 'audiendi' that the genitive does seem to have a place here.
any comments on this anyone?
“Cum ego verbo utar,” Humpty Dumpty dixit voce contempta, “indicat illud quod optem – nec plus nec minus.”
“Est tamen rogatio” dixit Alice, “an efficere verba tot res indicare possis.”
“Rogatio est, “Humpty Dumpty responsit, “quae fiat magister – id cunctum est.”