VOW
- Neos
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 44
- Joined: Sat May 03, 2008 7:10 pm
- Location: HELLAS - ROMANIA (ΡΩΜΑΝΙΑ) - ROUMELI
- Contact:
VOW
The word vow (oath, assure) comes from the Latin voveo (I vow), which is related to the Greek verb βεβαιώ (to assure, to promise with certainty; veveo).
_
In modern Greek.
α) βεβαιώ or βεβαιώνω: affirm, confirm, certify [veveo or veveono]
β) βεβαίωση: Affirmation, assurance, confirmation [veveosi]
γ) βεβαίως: adv. certainly, sure, of course [veveos]
δ) βέβαιος: certain, sure [veveos]
More: http://ewonago.blogspot.com/2008/07/vow.html
_
In modern Greek.
α) βεβαιώ or βεβαιώνω: affirm, confirm, certify [veveo or veveono]
β) βεβαίωση: Affirmation, assurance, confirmation [veveosi]
γ) βεβαίως: adv. certainly, sure, of course [veveos]
δ) βέβαιος: certain, sure [veveos]
More: http://ewonago.blogspot.com/2008/07/vow.html
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 3399
- Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
- Location: Madison, WI, USA
- Contact:
I love how you tailor you posts here to make it seem like you're being reasonable. Yet in your blog posts, which at first I thought were duplicates, you persist in the false notion that Latin is derived from Greek (emphasis mine):
You already have a blog for these. Don't waste our time and forum space with these if you're just going to copy sanitized versions of your blog. Those of us who want to drink of your etymological fantasies know the URL now.http://ewonago.blogspot.com/2008/07/vow.html wrote:The word vow (oath, assure) comes from the Latin voveo (I vow), which derives from the Greek verb βεβαιώ (to assure, to promise with certainty; veveo).
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
- calvinist
- Textkit Enthusiast
- Posts: 474
- Joined: Fri Apr 29, 2005 7:24 pm
- Location: San Diego, CA
I second that! But remember, the entire Proto Indo-European language derived from Ancient Greek....annis wrote:I love how you tailor you posts here to make it seem like you're being reasonable. Yet in your blog posts, which at first I thought were duplicates, you persist in the false notion that Latin is derived from Greek (emphasis mine):
You already have a blog for these. Don't waste our time and forum space with these if you're just going to copy sanitized versions of your blog. Those of us who want to drink of your etymological fantasies know the URL now.http://ewonago.blogspot.com/2008/07/vow.html wrote:The word vow (oath, assure) comes from the Latin voveo (I vow), which derives from the Greek verb βεβαιώ (to assure, to promise with certainty; veveo).
-
- Textkit Fan
- Posts: 282
- Joined: Wed Jan 10, 2007 6:35 pm
- Location: Regina, SK; Canada
- Contact:
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 3399
- Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
- Location: Madison, WI, USA
- Contact:
Yes.Essorant wrote:Does he believe that Latin is derived from Greek?
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
- benissimus
- Global Moderator
- Posts: 2733
- Joined: Mon May 12, 2003 4:32 am
- Location: Berkeley, California
- Contact:
- IreneY
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 800
- Joined: Thu Feb 16, 2006 8:27 am
- Location: U.S.A (not American though)
- Contact:
- calvinist
- Textkit Enthusiast
- Posts: 474
- Joined: Fri Apr 29, 2005 7:24 pm
- Location: San Diego, CA
- Lex
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 732
- Joined: Thu Apr 24, 2003 6:34 pm
- Location: A top-secret underground llama lair.
Hehe...calvinist wrote:Duh! That's why they were called barbarians!IreneY wrote:Or, in other words, most of the rest of the world -or at least the western world- probably communicated with grunts and gestures before coming in contact with the Greeks or their students, the Romans.
Come on now, the linguistic theory that all Indo-European languages are derived from Greek is every bit as valid as the Darwinian theory that we are all descended from chimps.
- Lex
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 732
- Joined: Thu Apr 24, 2003 6:34 pm
- Location: A top-secret underground llama lair.
Seriously, though, does this guy believe that all Indo-European derives from Greek, or just Latin and derived languages?
I'd love to hear how "dog" is derived from κυων.
[edit]
For that matter, how the heck did something like the shift from something like equus to ἰππος happen? Or was it the other way around? The centum/satem split is hard enough for me to swallow (although I can see how a "k" sound might become an "h" sound through an intermediate (or parent) aspirated "k" sound). Is this something that we are just supposed to accept based on the cognates that follow these rules? Or are there explanations for these shifts that are reasonable?
I'd love to hear how "dog" is derived from κυων.
[edit]
For that matter, how the heck did something like the shift from something like equus to ἰππος happen? Or was it the other way around? The centum/satem split is hard enough for me to swallow (although I can see how a "k" sound might become an "h" sound through an intermediate (or parent) aspirated "k" sound). Is this something that we are just supposed to accept based on the cognates that follow these rules? Or are there explanations for these shifts that are reasonable?
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 1889
- Joined: Sat May 31, 2003 2:28 am
- Location: Arthur Ontario Canada
I don't think he believes that every Latin word (or every English word) comes from Greek but he does seem to believe that every Latin (or English) word that is a cognate to a Greek word derived from that Greek word.Lex wrote:Seriously, though, does this guy believe that all Indo-European derives from Greek, or just Latin and derived languages?
I'd love to hear how "dog" is derived from κυων.
- calvinist
- Textkit Enthusiast
- Posts: 474
- Joined: Fri Apr 29, 2005 7:24 pm
- Location: San Diego, CA
Yeah, basically he doesn't understand the difference between cognate and derivative. It's like looking at your brother and saying, "Hey, dad!"Bert wrote:I don't think he believes that every Latin word (or every English word) comes from Greek but he does seem to believe that every Latin (or English) word that is a cognate to a Greek word derived from that Greek word.Lex wrote:Seriously, though, does this guy believe that all Indo-European derives from Greek, or just Latin and derived languages?
I'd love to hear how "dog" is derived from κυων.
- Lex
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 732
- Joined: Thu Apr 24, 2003 6:34 pm
- Location: A top-secret underground llama lair.
But, hey, this etymology stuff is fun and easy. All you need is a language reference of any sort, and a lot of imagination. No scientific arguments required. Let me try it. The Wiktionary says that "levél" is Hungarian for "leaf". That sounds sort of the same as "leaf", which according to our friend Neos, is derived from the Greek φυλλον. Hungarian must be derived from Greek as well! And everybody said that Hungarian isn't Indo-European. What an astounding discovery! And the Hawaiian for "leaf" is "lau". Gee, "levél" and "lau" could be cognates. Hawaiian and Hungarian are related! Who'd have thought those darned Huns were a sea-faring people? But now you know! Ahh, yes, I can just see my name up there with Grimm and Jones now...
-
- Textkit Enthusiast
- Posts: 408
- Joined: Fri Jan 07, 2005 4:04 pm
- Location: New York
I'm not sure if you're joking or not, but historical linguistics is not an arbitrary practice. It's a very powerful method, and if you'd like to ease your mind a bit about it's validity, read about the laryngeal theory of Ferdinand de Saussure and its apparent validation with the decipherment of Hittite.Lex wrote:But, hey, this etymology stuff is fun and easy. All you need is a language reference of any sort, and a lot of imagination. No scientific arguments required.
It's a complex and confusing science, but the introductory chapters of "Indo-European Language and Culture" by Benjamin Fortson from 2004 provide great explanations for the theory and fundamentals. There is also a book called "Comparative Indo-European Linguistics" by Robert Beekes from 1995. He is also a clear writer, although I prefer Fortson's book overall.
It's not just a matter of searching for similar-looking words. For instance, Fortson will explain that θεός and deus have no historical relationship despite appearances.
It's not a question of going from one to the other; they are both reflexes of an earlier word. They are also cognate with Sanskrit áśva, to make things more amazing.Lex wrote:For that matter, how the heck did something like the shift from something like equus to ἰππος happen? Or was it the other way around?
I think the Greek reflex ἵππος has something to do with the palatization of the labiovelars in Greek, but I believe it involves a more complicated sound change than the simple palatization. The initial aspiration is more of a problem than the other elements. Maybe someone else can explain it more clearly. In Linear B records the word is spelled i-qo (dative) which seems to betray its origins.
- Lex
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 732
- Joined: Thu Apr 24, 2003 6:34 pm
- Location: A top-secret underground llama lair.
I was joking. I don't really think Hungarian and Hawaiian are related, either.swiftnicholas wrote:I'm not sure if you're joking or not, but historical linguistics is not an arbitrary practice.Lex wrote:But, hey, this etymology stuff is fun and easy. All you need is a language reference of any sort, and a lot of imagination. No scientific arguments required.
My ear can actually buy that more easily than equus and ἰππος being related, believe it or not. I'm aware of the centum/satem split, which I can sort of hear, and taking that into consideration, áśva would transform into something like ákva, which does seem close to equus. I've also read that there is a P/Q split in Celtic.swiftnicholas wrote:It's not a question of going from one to the other; they are both reflexes of an earlier word. They are also cognate with Sanskrit áśva, to make things more amazing.Lex wrote:For that matter, how the heck did something like the shift from something like equus to ἰππος happen? Or was it the other way around?
.
-
- Textkit Enthusiast
- Posts: 408
- Joined: Fri Jan 07, 2005 4:04 pm
- Location: New York
- Lex
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 732
- Joined: Thu Apr 24, 2003 6:34 pm
- Location: A top-secret underground llama lair.
This occurred to me; supposedly Q-Celtic (Celtic on the Q side of the P/Q split), aka Celtiberian, was the original Celtic, and P-Celtic is the offshoot. Also, Latin (a Q language) is supposedly more closely related to Celtic than to Greek. That would imply that the P/Q split between Proto-Greek and other languages in that tree happened first, then another P/Q split happened independently in Celtic. Is this right?Lex wrote:I've also read that there is a P/Q split in Celtic.
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 3399
- Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
- Location: Madison, WI, USA
- Contact:
Hie thee to a bookstore and buy Fortson's expensive book! The three different velar sounds (plain, palatal, labial) fell out in different ways in different languages. I wouldn't speak of a P/Q split across major language families, or at least not without a lot of hedging. Several language families have diagnostic splits within them. Greek has a labio-velar P/Q split of its own (to say nothing of the strange /t/ outcome in palatal environments).Lex wrote:This occurred to me; supposedly Q-Celtic (Celtic on the Q side of the P/Q split), aka Celtiberian, was the original Celtic, and P-Celtic is the offshoot. Also, Latin (a Q language) is supposedly more closely related to Celtic than to Greek. That would imply that the P/Q split between Proto-Greek and other languages in that tree happened first, then another P/Q split happened independently in Celtic. Is this right?
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 1889
- Joined: Sat May 31, 2003 2:28 am
- Location: Arthur Ontario Canada
I don't pretend to understand all of this. (This is the first time I have heard of something called a P/Q split,) but this comment puzzled me enough to ask about it. Three different velar sounds: Plain would probably be the real velar, like the ng in young, I am thinking that palatal would be the y in young but what is a labial velar sound? I don't know how I would go about making a velar sound that involves my lips. What am I misunderstanding?annis wrote:...... The three different velar sounds (plain, palatal, labial) fell out in different ways in different languages. .......
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 3399
- Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
- Location: Madison, WI, USA
- Contact:
Well, we're talking about the velar stops here, which in the proto-indo-european situation means k, g, gh. It is widely, if not universally, held that there were three varieties of these sounds:Bert wrote:Three different velar sounds: Plain would probably be the real velar, like the ng in young, I am thinking that palatal would be the y in young but what is a labial velar sound? I don't know how I would go about making a velar sound that involves my lips. What am I misunderstanding?
- plain
- palatal (like the beginning of cute, though without the [y])
- labial, basically a k articulated with the lips rounded as for [w]
The P/Q split has to do with how the languages handled the labio-velars. Sometimes the dropped back to simple velars, or they might even have stayed labio-velar for a while (Latin quis, Mycenaean i-qo). In some languages they switched into pure labial sounds (i.e., p, b and the like). Thus the name, P/Q split.
The Greek fallout from the labio-velars is just a mess, with each of kw, gw and ghw (normally that "w" would be a superscript) turning into a different sound depending on other nearby sounds and, for more fun yet, falling out differently in different dialects. For example, in Attic-Ionic, kw next to i or e turned into /t/ of all things, so that τίς is cognate with Latin quis, and τε with Latin -que.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;