Arist. Eth. Nic. 1135a30

[bedwere]

Arist. Eth. Nic. 1135a

?μοίως δὲ τὸ τοιοῦτον διω?ίσθω καὶ ?πὶ τοῦ οὗ ἕνεκα, καὶ πε?ὶ τὴν π?ᾶξιν ὅλην.

Hello,

I have two questions about two oddities (at least to me):

1) I guess τοιοῦτον is a rarer form of τοιοῦτο and couples with the preceding article, right?
2) What about διω?ίσθω? Could I have written διο?ίσθω instead?

Many thanks!

[bedwere]

[modus.irrealis]

[bedwere]

Thanks! Moving on:

ὁ?ταν μὲν οὐ̂ν πα?αλο?γως ἡ βλα?βη γε?νηται, ἀτυ?χημα: ὁ?ταν δὲ μὴ πα?αλο?γως, ἀ?νευ δὲ κακι?ας, ἁμα??τημα ̔ἁμα?τα?νει μὲν γὰ? ὁ?ταν ἡ ἀ?χὴ ἐν αὐτῳ̂ ᾐ̂ τη̂ς αἰτι?ας, ἀτυχει̂ δ' ὁ?ταν ἐ?ξωθεν̓:

Is the second breathing in ἐ?ξωθεν̓ a mistake? I found it here but not here. I thought it might be a remnant of an elided subjunctive ᾖ but what do I know?

[modus.irrealis]

Yeah, it's almost certainly just a mistake.

[Swth\r]

[bedwere]

Taking again advantage of your kindness and expertise, why is ο? accented here?


πότε?ον γὰ? ὡς ἀληθῶς ἔστιν ἑκόντα ἀδικεῖσθαι, ἢ οὒ ἀλλ’ ἀκο?σιον ἅπαν,
1136a.15

[modus.irrealis]

Basically, ο? is accented when it's used on it's own (usually, if not always, at the end of a clause) instead of negating what follows (note how it's also not ο?κ here despite being followed by ἀλλά).

[Swth\r]