hi
i am trying to pick up the suus/eius grammar (with my tutor).she is using the magnificat to illustrate.but one problem has arisen. why in ch1 ver 51(lk) is 'he has scattered the proud in the conceit of their heart' translated with 'sui'.?
is this point similarly expressed in the greek n.t. as a matter of interest. i have a feeling that the magnificat isn't inspired along with other parts of lk.(eg; the passion narrative). if their is a correspondance in the grammar between the different n.t. books it might at least indicate approximately from what era they date from as well as the author(s).
thanks
little flower.
magnificat
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We are talking about this sentence, right?
"dispersit superbos mente cordis sui"
It feels natural to me, but I am not sure how to formally explain it. I believe it has to do with the fact that a substantified adjective is semantically equivalent with relative pronoun + predicate. What I am aiming at is that the phrase can be reformulated as
"dispersit eos, qui essent superbi mente cordis sui."
("He has scattered those who were proud in the thoughts of their heart.")
"dispersit superbos mente cordis sui"
It feels natural to me, but I am not sure how to formally explain it. I believe it has to do with the fact that a substantified adjective is semantically equivalent with relative pronoun + predicate. What I am aiming at is that the phrase can be reformulated as
"dispersit eos, qui essent superbi mente cordis sui."
("He has scattered those who were proud in the thoughts of their heart.")
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And more besides, just as you say, Alatius. As, for example,...Et plus ultrâ, Alati, ità ut dicis. Ut, inter alia exempla,...Alatius wrote:a substantified adjective is semantically equivalent with relative pronoun + predicate
"Studeo sanare sibi ipsos (Cat. 2.17)" apud Allen & Greenough, New Latin Grammar, "Special Uses of the Reflexive" §301 ( http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/pt ... e%3D%23181 )