Scribo wrote:I know, traditionally, that in exams etc, Classicists translate portions of Shakespeare into Greek, and that Latin traiditionally takes the form of...elegaics? (I can't think whatever else)
I don't understand your question. Is Shakespeare not turned into Latin at all, or rarely?
I can' help but wonder why? Let's not have any nonsensical philhellenism by the way, I hope we're all past that and able to give a proper answer.
I haven't the foggiest idea how philhellenism would work into this question.
Since the iambic trimeter as used in Greek drama is by far the most common verse form in Greek verse comp, I assume Shakespeare, being verse drama (often verse, at any rate) seemed a likely match.