Datative case?
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Datative case?
If you were translating a sentence like: "The boy said to the girl, 'I want to get some ice cream'" would you use the datative case for "to the girl"? or would you say it another way?
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Re: Datative case?
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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- Lucus Eques
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I would think so, but I'm not prepared to say "yes" with 100% certainty.DARKastheRAIN wrote:so would using the dative case be common in most languages with dative cases?
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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It so happens that my mother tongue (Polish) has the dative case, and yes, it is common to simply use words in dative, without any preposition. However, when one wants to emphasize to whom something is given etc., one uses an appropriate preposition plus - oddly enough - the genitive case. But I think that, when a personal pronoun is used, we always use dative with no preposition.DARKastheRAIN wrote:so would using the dative case be common in most languages with dative cases?
Interestingly, in Turkish the situation is similar (the difference being that they have postpositions instead of prepositions), although - as far as I know - they use postpositions also after personal pronouns.