This is my first post here. I am at the end of my first year of Latin (Wheelock).
I am translating the first few paragraphs of Genesis from the Vulgate and have a couple of questions. I am familiar enough with the Bible that the translation is disappointingly easy- I feel like I am cheating!
However I have run into a problem interpreting exactly what Jerome meant in the latter half of the sentence:
Vocavitque Deus firmamentum caelum: et factum est vespere et mane dies secundus
1. why are vespere and mane in the ablative? Is this ablative of time, or of means/instrument?
2. Why is factum singular, shouldn't it be "facta sunt" (bc. of vespere AND mane)
Hi, Merus Ipse. Welcome! Salvus sis, Mere Ipse. Gratus est nobis tuus adventus! I'm not an expert either but... Necnon peritus sum, atqui...
Vespere et mane, dies secundus factus est-- "With an evening and a morning, the second day [singular, numeri singulis] was made".
Ablative of means for a manner or circumstance of doing, I believe. Ablativus modi, ut opinor.
it's a semitism and should be considered a clause of its own
The Hebrew isn't that way though. The noun <b>erebh</b> "evening" is the subject of the reverse-imperfect of the verb "to be" <b>vayehi</b> "and (there) was" and then thilk verbform is used again with <b>boqer</b> "morning" as the subject, literally "And there was evening and there was morning, a second day".<pre></pre>