GreekGeek2 wrote:does anyone of you know when the verbs Ï†Î®Î¼Î¹ and Îµá¼¶Î¼Î¹ are accented and in which way?
I'm not entirely sure I understand your question. What grammar are you using? Usually the convention with these verbs is that when a multi-syllable word is written with an accent on the final syllable that means it's enclitic.
For both Ï†Î·Î¼Î¯ and Îµá¼°Î¼Î¯ all forms of the present indicative except the 2sg (Ï†á¿‡Ï‚, Îµá¼¶) are enclitic. Otherwise they accent normally, except, as always, for some oddball behavior in some dialects.