But on page 271, in the excerpt from Plato (Gorgias 456a-c), a sentence begins:φημι... has enclitic forms in the present active indicative (except 2nd sing. φης).
Why is φημι accented on the ultima? Is it because it's at the beginning of the sentence? Mastronarde mentioned this behavior with ειμι (be) but never with φημι as I recall.fhmi\ de\ kai\ ei)s po/lin...