So, on another forum, a guy asked me about various translations of a few verses. It seemed that some of the confusion might be eliminated with an adequate understanding of the verb tenses. Since I’m not yet to verbs, I thought I would post his concerns here and see if you guys had an opinion on it. First, the translation of 1 John 3:9.
This has been translated several different ways. The way the KJV reads, it would seem to imply that a Christian “cannot sinâ€, the NIV states that they cannot “continue to sinâ€, the ESV states they cannot “make a practice of sinningâ€.
Could somebody translate this verse and explain the verb tenses used and make a statement to the proper translation.
Secondly, could some of you address John 9:31
Here the verse states that God does not listen to sinners, which is held in tension with 1 John 1:10. Could someone please address these translations as well. Thanks.
