joseph47parker wrote:So, on another forum, a guy asked me about various translations of a few verses. It seemed that some of the confusion might be eliminated with an adequate understanding of the verb tenses. Since Iâ€™m not yet to verbs, I thought I would post his concerns here and see if you guys had an opinion on it. First, the translation of 1 John 3:9.
This has been translated several different ways. The way the KJV reads, it would seem to imply that a Christian â€œcannot sinâ€, the NIV states that they cannot â€œcontinue to sinâ€, the ESV states they cannot â€œmake a practice of sinningâ€.
Could somebody translate this verse and explain the verb tenses used and make a statement to the proper translation.
Grammar is not going to help here. You are going to have to use the rest of the Bible guide you in understanding these verses. In English as well as in Greek. The man who was healed is putting á¼Î¼Î±ÏÏ„Ï‰Î»á¿¶Î½ (sinful) over against Î¸ÎµÎ¿ÏƒÎµÎ²á½µÏ‚ (godly), not over against á¼€Î½Î±Î¼á½±ÏÏ„Î·Ï„Î¿Ï‚ (sinless).joseph47parker wrote:Secondly, could some of you address John 9:31
Here the verse states that God does not listen to sinners, which is held in tension with 1 John 1:10. Could someone please address these translations as well. Thanks.
Kasper wrote:Joseph on what basis do you say that "Î¿ Î³ÎµÎ³ÎµÎ½Î½Î·Î¼ÎµÌÎ½Î¿Ï‚ ÎµÎº Ï„Î¿Ï… Î¸ÎµÎ¿Ï…" translates to 'a Christian'? This may be what is meant, but it is certainly not a literal translation.
vir litterarum wrote:the NASB is generally considered the most accurate translation of the Bible into English, so from now on you ought to consult it in addition to the KJV when considering such issues.
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