ὑμει̂ς δὲ λέγετε ̔̀Ος ἂν εἴπῃ τῳ̂ πατ?ὶ ἢ τῃ̂ μητ?ί Δω̂?ον ὃ ?ὰν ?ξ ?μου̂ ὠφεληθῃ̂ς, [6] ο? μὴ τιμήσει τὸν πατέ?α α?του̂:
Matthew15.5-6
is the accusative "o ean" used here as an adverbial accusative of degree, i.e. "...to whatever extent you may gain advantage from me..."?
Matthew 15:5: indefinite relative pronoun usage
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Re: Matthew 15:5: indefinite relative pronoun usage
I'm not sure about this verse, but I in the main clause, the only way I can see to read it is as δῶ?ον [?στὶν τοῦτο] ὃ ?ᾶν... so taking it as degree doesn't seem to fit in the larger clause.
In the relative clause, I understand at is as some kind of object of ὠφεληθῇς, which would mean something like "receive as help" or "derive benefit from/by" (or maybe even simply "acquire"). Sort of like an extension of πολλὰ ὠφελεῖν τινα. So "whatever you might receive as help from me".
In the relative clause, I understand at is as some kind of object of ὠφεληθῇς, which would mean something like "receive as help" or "derive benefit from/by" (or maybe even simply "acquire"). Sort of like an extension of πολλὰ ὠφελεῖν τινα. So "whatever you might receive as help from me".
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Well, the LSJ has "esp. of troops, acquire booty, πολλὰ πα?ὰ τὴν στ?ατείαν ὠ. Plu.Cat.Ma.10;" although πολλὰ is probably not a direct object here. But the passive forms already had a middle meaning in Classical Greek so it wouldn't be all that strange for them to be construed with a direct object. I agree that it's an odd verse but I'm not sure how else to understand it.
It also seems to have been understood this way in ancient times. Here's a commentary on this verse (based on a passage from John Chrysostom):
Τί ?στιν, “ὃς ἂν εἴπῃ τῷ πατ?ὶ ἢ τῇ μητ?ὶ δῶ?ον, ὃ ?ὰν ?ξ “?μοῦ ὠφεληθῇς, καὶ ο? τιμήσῃ τὸν πατέ?α ἑαυτοῦ;? ?παίδευσαν τοὺς νέους, ε?σεβείας σχήματι, καταφ?ονεῖν τῶν γονέων· οἷον, εἴ τις εἶπεν τῷ ἰδίῳ υἱῷ· δός μοι τὸ π?όβατον, ὃ ἔχεις, ἢ τὸν μόσχον, ἢ ἄλλο τι τοιοῦτον, ἔλεγε π?ὸς πατέ?α, δῶ?όν ?στι τῷ Θεῷ τοῦτο, ὃ θέλεις ?ξ ?μοῦ ὠφεληθῆναι, καὶ ο? δ?νασαι λαβεῖν·
This has the same issue with ὃ and the passive of ὠφελῶ but I think the context is clearer for what is meant
It also seems to have been understood this way in ancient times. Here's a commentary on this verse (based on a passage from John Chrysostom):
Τί ?στιν, “ὃς ἂν εἴπῃ τῷ πατ?ὶ ἢ τῇ μητ?ὶ δῶ?ον, ὃ ?ὰν ?ξ “?μοῦ ὠφεληθῇς, καὶ ο? τιμήσῃ τὸν πατέ?α ἑαυτοῦ;? ?παίδευσαν τοὺς νέους, ε?σεβείας σχήματι, καταφ?ονεῖν τῶν γονέων· οἷον, εἴ τις εἶπεν τῷ ἰδίῳ υἱῷ· δός μοι τὸ π?όβατον, ὃ ἔχεις, ἢ τὸν μόσχον, ἢ ἄλλο τι τοιοῦτον, ἔλεγε π?ὸς πατέ?α, δῶ?όν ?στι τῷ Θεῷ τοῦτο, ὃ θέλεις ?ξ ?μοῦ ὠφεληθῆναι, καὶ ο? δ?νασαι λαβεῖν·
This has the same issue with ὃ and the passive of ὠφελῶ but I think the context is clearer for what is meant