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qustion about Matt 13:28 and 39

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qustion about Matt 13:28 and 39

Postby joseph47parker » Fri Oct 19, 2007 3:15 pm

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Postby vir litterarum » Fri Oct 19, 2007 4:51 pm

the "anthrwpos" only refers to the parable itself, not the explanation thereof. The parable wouldn't make sense if it were the devil himself who planted tares within the wheat, so Jesus uses the concrete, indefinite enemy "hostile man." The verse is not at all intended to be sympathetic to the devil or to impart to him human qualities; rather, the "hostile man" is merely a concrete example of the malign influence of the devil.
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Postby joseph47parker » Fri Oct 19, 2007 5:20 pm

Great. Thanks. I wasn't trying to be a literalist, but I just didn't know if it was more significant. I guess it seems pretty obvious now.
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