usage of "te kai"

[vir litterarum]

οá½￾ γάÏ￾ πω τοίους ἴδον ἀνέÏ￾ας οá½￾δὲ ἴδωμαι,

οἷον ΠειÏ￾ίθοόν τε ΔÏ￾ύαντά τε ποιμένα λαῶν

Καινέα τ' Ἐξάδιόν τε καὶ ἀντίθεον Πολύφημον
Il. 1.261-264

I do not understand how these direct objects are being correlated. Why does Homer use "kai" for the last object instead of "te"?

[annis]

I do not understand how these direct objects are being correlated. Why does Homer use "kai" for the last object instead of "te"?

Monro §331 (p.301), on τε: "The combinations τε — καί and τε — ἠδέ (or ἰδέ) are also common in Homer, and are not sensibly different in meaning from τε — τε:"

[vir litterarum]

So is "te...te... te kai" a common way of correlating several nouns in Homeric Greek?

[annis]

So is "te...te... te kai" a common way of correlating several nouns in Homeric Greek?

Have a look at the opening to Hesiod's Θεογονία, lines 11-21:

ὑμνεῦσαι Δία Ï„á¾½ αἰγίοχον καὶ πότνιαν á¼­Ï￾ην
ἈÏ￾γεÎ￾ην, χÏ￾υσέοισι πεδίλοις á¼￾μβεβαυῖαν,
κοÏ￾Ï￾ην Ï„á¾½ αἰγιόχοιο Διὸς γλαυκῶπιν Ἀθήνην
Φοῖβόν Ï„á¾½ Ἀπόλλωνα καὶ ἌÏ￾τεμιν ἰοχέαιÏ￾αν
ἠδὲ Ποσειδάωνα γαιήοχον, á¼￾ννοσίγαιον,
καὶ Θέμιν αἰδοίην ἑλικοβλέφαÏ￾όν Ï„á¾½ ἈφÏ￾οδίτην
Ἥβην τε χÏ￾υσοστέφανον καλήν τε Διώνην
Λητώ Ï„á¾½ Ἰαπετόν τε ἰδὲ ΚÏ￾όνον ἀγκυλομήτην
Ἠῶ Ï„á¾½ Ἠέλιόν τε μέγαν λαμπÏ￾άν τε Σελήνην
Γαῖάν Ï„á¾½ Ὠκεανόν τε μέγαν καὶ Î￾Ï￾κτα μέλαιναν
ἄλλων Ï„á¾½ ἀθανάτων ἱεÏ￾ὸν γένος αἰὲν á¼￾όντων.

There's serious mix-n-match action going on here. Poets will do what they have to to get everything they need to say in.

[vir litterarum]

I just wasn't aware that the manner of conjoining objects could switch like that within a sentence.