Pharr states the following in paragraph 556:
á¼ÏƒÏ„á½·(ν) is written with an accent on the first syllable (ἔστι) when :
1) It comes at the beginning of a sentence or of a verse of poetry :
2) It denotes possibility or existence.
3) It is preceded by οá½Îº, εἰ, καί, ὡς, μή, ἀλλ', or τοῦτ'.
But in paragraph 216 sentence 4 writes:
ΧÏυσηίς οὔκ á¼ÏƒÏ„ι χεÏείων ΚλυταιμήστÏης
And in 311, sentence 3:
Ἀγαμέμνων οὔκ á¼ÏƒÏ„ιν οἰνοβαÏής
This puzzles me. Am I overlooking the application of another rule? Also, that accenting of ΧÏυσηίς is not what I would expect (I would have used the grave accent).
Can someone shed some light on this?


