modus.irrealis wrote:...because on some deeper level the enclitic isn't really the first word, but the surface structure is formed by moving the conjunction from first to second position?
Bert wrote:That is an interesting question. I don't have a lot of time right now (seeing that it is bedtime) but my first thought is that it might be because Ï„Î¹Ï‚ is the same word as Ï„á½·Ï‚. The accent indicates that the intonation is different but still, it is the same word. If this is indeed the reason then words like Ï€á½½Ï‚, Ï€Î¿Ï„á½³ and Ï€Î¿á½» should occur first in a sentence as well. Anyone know if that happens?
Bert wrote:Looking in Smyth (187) I found that enclitics retain their accents if (among other things) they are first in a sentence. The examples given all have a post possitive following so it does not prove anyting, it just gives some confirmation that your question is valid.
modus.irrealis wrote:Edit again to add that this still seems quite odd, and self-contradictory, behaviour for enclitics, even the example from Classical Greek.
modus.irrealis wrote:That makes sense, to distinguish them that way. But are Î¼ÎÎ½ and Î´Î enclitics in the strict sense, since they don't seem to form accentuation groups with the words that precede them?
Bert wrote:syntactic, pragmatic, non-syntactic.
Do you mind giving a short description or explanation of these terms?
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