The KJV says the darndest things

[ndansmith]

Matthew 24:32 and Mark 13:28 are virtually identical in Greek. Here is what the KJV does with them:

Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:

Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When her branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is near:

My guess is that the translator of Matthew assimilated the maleness of "branch" into his translation. Otherwise, maybe he didn't know the gender of "fig tree." Any other ideas?

Also, what do you think is the subject of "put forth" ? ;-)

[Bert]

Matthew 24:32 and Mark 13:28 are virtually identical in Greek. Here is what the KJV does with them:

Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:

Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When her branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is near:

My guess is that the translator of Matthew assimilated the maleness of "branch" into his translation. Otherwise, maybe he didn't know the gender of "fig tree." Any other ideas?

Also, what do you think is the subject of "put forth" ?

Hard to believe that he(?) didn't know the gender of 'figtree,' especially seeing that a fem. article and pronoun are given.
What is the grammatical gender of 'tree' in English?
The subject of putteth forth, is that a trick question? It is 'branch' no?

[CharlesH]

beam m.

treow n.

These are two OE words both meaning tree. Beam has cognates in the other Germanic languages: 'boom' in dutch, 'baum' in German. In OE it is also used to mean 'log'.

It seems that in Mod. English the meaning has shifted to mean 'branch' or even more commonly, any piece of long, straight timber smaller than a log but larger than a stick.

CharlesH

[ndansmith]

The subject of putteth forth, is that a trick question? It is 'branch' no?

It is a trick question. ;-) Grammatically the subject could be branch or leaves, and both are represented in various English translations.

[joja]

Hello,In your post you ask why Matthew says 'his branch"
and Mark says "her branch."
Luke 21:29 also speaks of "the fig tree and the other trees."
I believe the reason these Scriptures speak of his and her branch
is because the "fig tree" is the original Hebrew tree,
but there is also a Gentile branch that was grafted into that fig tree.
For 2,000 years, the "fig tree" had not blossomed, but since they
became a nation, that fig tree, Israel, has blossomed like a return
or a revival to the original state.
"The other trees" refers to the Gentile branch (Christian churches)
that were grafted into the original Israelite tree,
having their Pentecostal revival too.
That's why his and her is mentiond re: the branches of that one tree,
symbolically and spiritually speaking.
I know this is not particularly re: Greek nor Latin, but I hope this
great website will allow this post in answer to your question for
you and many other readers that may have wondered about It.