Greek Etymology

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joseph47parker
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Greek Etymology

Post by joseph47parker »

I am just starting learing Koine Greek. Currently on chapter 10 of BBG, so I got a long way to go. Anyway, I have a question about etymology....I think. Let me make give this example and then my question will be clear I hope.
In Romans 1:16 the NIV states

I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God….


In the TEV it states

I have complete confidence in the gospel; it is God's power

I heard a sermon on this verse that stated the Greek term epascunmai (sorry I couldn't get the greek font to work here) means “ashamed? but also carries with it a meaning of being “disappointed? and that is why the TEV has translated it as having “compete confidence?.

So, I start looking in my handy dandy Lexicon (I’m using Trenchard’s Concise Dicty of NT Greek) and the definition was “ashamed? no more. So I look on some software Lexicons and they also ONLY have “ashamed? for the definition. (Thayer’s, Louw and Nida, Vine’s expository of NT words, Strong’s)

So where did this translation of “complete confidence? come from. Is this something that I would get from a better lexicon? A NT Greek commentary? Is this an etymology question and if so what book(s) are good for that? Is etymology the same as morphology….IOW….will a good morphology book cover the etymology of greek words?

Bert
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Re: Greek Etymology

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joseph47parker
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Post by joseph47parker »

Thanks Bert,

Your right. On my Louw and Nida it has.."to experience or feel shame or disgrace because of some particular event or activity - 'to be ashamed of.'
I guess I was just expecting to see something about "disappointed" or the like in the definition. So your Lexicons have this as the full definition?

I really appreciate your reply. I am the ONLY person I know that has ANY desire to learn greek.

If you would be so kind as to answer a few more questions. I know there are several commentaries that refer to the Greek in their writings. Do you have any advice on which ones to purchase? I have just bought Hagner's Commentary on Matthew from the Word Biblical Commentary series. Thoughts?

Also, I really don't like transliterated versions. Is this normal?
and how do you get the greek font to work on this site? I have TekniaGreek font on my CPU?

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IreneY
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Post by IreneY »

Just to say that I've cracked up my favourite dictionary and I cannot still find a translation that maes sense to me given the context . The only one that seems to "fit" is "I am not shaming the gospel'.
My dictionary (which none of you will have heard of since it's a Greek-Greek one has only one reference of επαισχ?νομαι used with the meaning of making someone look ugly, deform , ashame and it comes from Nonnos so I couldn't find it anywhere (Nonn D 20,61 for anyone interested).

Frankly I am not entirely happy choosing this translation really but it's the only one I actually like, the only one that makes sense to me.

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Post by Bert »

joseph47parker wrote:Thanks Bert,

Your right. On my Louw and Nida it has.."to experience or feel shame or disgrace because of some particular event or activity - 'to be ashamed of.'
I guess I was just expecting to see something about "disappointed" or the like in the definition. So your Lexicons have this as the full definition?
Yes. It then lists a few different uses.
joseph47parker wrote:
I really appreciate your reply. I am the ONLY person I know that has ANY desire to learn greek.
That makes it hard to stick with it. Textkit can fill this gap quite nicelyv
joseph47parker wrote:
If you would be so kind as to answer a few more questions. I know there are several commentaries that refer to the Greek in their writings. Do you have any advice on which ones to purchase? I have just bought Hagner's Commentary on Matthew from the Word Biblical Commentary series. Thoughts?
I like Calvin's commentary but I'm sure there are others as well that make reference to the Greek. I don't know enough about them to make a recomendation. I am a member of a Biblical Greek discussion group. You are more likely to get advise there. You could check their archives as well. You can find information about subscribing etc. here: http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
joseph47parker wrote: Also, I really don't like transliterated versions. Is this normal?

It is to accomodate those who don't know any Greek. Once someone knows some Greek the transliterated Greek is harder to read than real Greek.
joseph47parker wrote: and how do you get the greek font to work on this site? I have TekniaGreek font on my CPU?
This site uses unicode. Can you read what I wrote in Greek in my previous post? If so, you have unicode. All you need is a way to write it.
I use a free program from http://www.tavultesoft.com/keyman/ (Only one of them is free.) You can also use this website http://users.ox.ac.uk/~tayl0010/letters ... etpos2.htm

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IreneY
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Post by IreneY »

The dictionary covers meanings from Homer to modern Greek which is why I've named it my precious. Nonnus lived around the 4th or 5th century AD if I remember correctly.

Most of the NT examples it has by the way have a middle/passive meaning by the way. Note that I'm talking about έπαισχ?νομαι.

The meanings it has are as follows
1)
  • with dative I am ashamed /embarassed about sth

    with accusative I am ashamed/embarassed of something

    with infinitive I am ashamed/embarassed of doing sth or I'm ashamed of having sth done to me

    with participle I am ashamed/embarassed of sth I did or am doing

    as an absolute I am ashamed/embarassed
2) I deny sth out of shame

3) I make something ugly, deformed, I shame sth

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Post by Bert »

That sounds like a valuable book.
I deny sth out of shame seems to fit the context quite well.

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IreneY
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Post by IreneY »

OK I know I'm probably missing something (wouldn't be the first time and today what with one thing or another I am going back and forth between AG and MG with the occasional English for too long)

However look at the following

14 ?λλησί τε καὶ βα?βά?οις, σοφοῖς τε καὶ ἀνοήτοις ὀφειλέτης εἰμί· 15 οὕτω τὸ κατ' ?μὲ π?όθυμον καὶ ὑμῖν τοῖς ?ν Ρώμῃ ε?αγγελίσασθαι. 16 ο? γὰ? ?παισχύνομαι τὸ ε?αγγέλιον τοῦ Χ?ιστοῦ· δύναμις γὰ? Θεοῦ ?στιν εἰς σωτη?ίαν παντὶ τῷ πιστεύοντι, Ἰουδαίῳ τε π?ῶτον καὶ ?λληνι. 17 δικαιοσύνη γὰ? Θεοῦ ?ν α?τῷ ἀποκαλύπτεται ?κ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν, καθὼς γέγ?απται· ? δὲ δίκαιος ?κ πίστεως ζήσεται

How does I don't deny out shame fits? (nevermind the Greeks; what on Earth are we doing in there? Is it so in all bibles or is it a local thing?) . I mean of course he is not ashamed or denying the gospel out of shame. He's preaching the gospel! Why say something like that when no one told him to do so? See where I'm confused?

joseph47parker my apologies for hijacking your thread but it's above me. I am able to go on wondering for waay too long if I don't have this answered though :) :oops:

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Post by Bert »

Paul just finished saying that he was delayed in coming. He has been scorned because of the gospel many times (see 1Cor 4:13) so it is a distinct possibility that he will face the same treatment from the Roman gentiles as he proclaims the gospel to them. Now he wants to assure the Roman Christians that his delay was not because of shame. At the same time he may be preparing the Roman Christians that this will happen to them as well and encouraging them that they don't have to be ashamed either.
That is my take on it.
Some think that he is just stating the obvious. "I'm not ashamed, I'm preaching it."
I don't think that is likely. To my shame, I've been ashamed of the gospel before even though I have confidence in its truth.
I hope I made sense.

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Post by IreneY »

Ah! Yes, that does make sense! I guess I needed to know more of the overall context. Thanks Bert :)

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