AVRAHAM wrote:I currently know Hebrew.
However, Greek is way harder than Hebrew!
(I understand it is a little more complex, at least in vocabulary?)
I am also soon going to take up Latin(thanks to this website I now have the means!!!), and on top of that, Classical Greek.
Well, since I know Hebrew, I am fascinated with it's comparison with the septuagint.
I understand they both help explain the other. I've read all the postings here, and studied about it elsewhere. I will also point out for refference, I am a former Jew, turned disciple of Yeshua(Jesus, Christian, whatever you want to call it). I am not part of a denomination, however. I do have some strong personal beliefs, yet in my opinions I try to stay open-minded in searching for the truth. My goal here is not religious, but grammatical. What I do with what I learn here I will do on my own later. I won't force my beliefs on anyone
1. In the Hebrew OT, the word for "slave" is "×¢Ö¶×‘Ö¶×“"(eved). Now we all hear stories of the Hebrew "slaves" in Egypt. Stories that conjur up images of beating, raping, and just utter terror. However, a rabbi of mine one taught me that it was not so. The Hebrews live almost the best they ever did in their history. Tons of food, clothing, housing, and for the most part, total freedoms. Outside of perhaps worshiping their God, or leaving for vacations to Hawai'i This shocked me at first. But Hebrew is not as specific as English or Greek. Each word could have at least 3 different definitions in English. ×¢Ö¶×‘Ö¶×“ also means "servant". In our sense, the fact that I do not own my own business, makes me an ×¢Ö¶×‘Ö¶×“. A slave? Maybe to the system. But that's not colloquial English So. What does it say in the LXX? And what does it mean exactly? Not just literally, but idiomatically, et cetera?
Jews translate it as "young woman of marrying age"(can never put Hebrew into one word )
A Russian Orthodox Monk/Priest friend of mine told me that in the Jews translating the LXX from Hebrew to Greek, used the literal Greek word for virgin, and not maiden. Thus clarifying all arguments centuries before the birth of Jesus. Is this true? What is your reading of it in the LXX Greek?
AVRAHAM wrote:3. Lastly, I ask about the flood story. Many people who maintain the Bible to be nothing but fallacies state that the flood story if preposterous. (I don't care if you are Christian or not. Just at least accept that the Bible is really cool mythology, not lies ) Well, there is new evidence that that there was a huge flood in the region around the Medditerranian and Black Seas. National Geographic even did a few specials on it recently. It is not only in the culture and religions of all the peoples in those areas, but they also have extensive evidence pertaining to it. However, the evidence is not global. This supported suspicions I had before. In Hebrew, when the flood was on the "world", the word used is "×Ö¸×¨Ö¶×¥" (eretz), and not what I would think "×¢Ö¹×œÖ¸×" (olam) or "×ªÖ¼Öµ×‘Öµ×œ" (teiveil). "×¢Ö¹×œÖ¸×" means "world, universe, eternity". "×ªÖ¼Öµ×‘Öµ×œ" means "the Earth, the globe, or moist". Whereas the word used, "×Ö¸×¨Ö¶×¥" means "earth" but also means "land, country, area, or hard". Now in my knowledge of Hebrew (not saying I'm a leading expert or anything) "×Ö¸×¨Ö¶×¥" is more cannoted to a smaller area. As "country" or "region". It is seldom used for "whole planet". "×¢Ö¹×œÖ¸×" is popular. So what say you? -Avraham
AVRAHAM wrote:Other than computers and universities and ipods and such, all the words are actually from biblical Hebrew.
Agrippa: Erezt of course has a variety of meanings. I still maintain that in general it is cannoted in reference to a smaller scale section of land.
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