Greek = tonal language?

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Ptahhotep
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Greek = tonal language?

Post by Ptahhotep »

[size=150]γεíα σου<br />I'd like to know if the accents (grave, acute, and circumflex) were pronounced as in Mandarin Chinese (high-falling, low-rising, and high-falling suddenly to low-rising again). They exist in Spanish and Latin (except the circumflex) but are not tonilised. [size=150]ευχασιστω’ για το βοη’θημα σας

mingshey
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Re:Greek = tonal language?

Post by mingshey »

Until recently I thought it was so, and in some manner it seems quite so. But in definition it's rather "high" pitch, "a little high" pitch, and their combination, respectively. See Smyth 150 and try here.<br /><br />I recollect there was recently a posting about the tones of poetic greek study, but I cannot locate it.<br />

Emma_85
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Re:Greek = tonal language?

Post by Emma_85 »

I couldn't find the post either, though I'm sure there was one.<br /><br />BTW, I can't see your avatas (both your's and mingshey's)

mingshey
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Re:Greek = tonal language?

Post by mingshey »

I found it. see bingley's topic [size=150]τό βιβλίον ἀφῖκται .<br />And look for chad's post there. There's a link about the pitch.<br />

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