RKBentley wrote:I know that Î¿Ì”ÍÏ„Î¹ can be translated 'that' or 'because' or it can introduce a direct quote and not be translated. In John 1:15, the apostle John is quoting John the Baptist. Where exactly does John the Baptist's quote end?
John the Baptist's quote ends in verse 15. The Apostle clearly introduces JB's quote with Î»ÎµÎ³Ï‰Î½.
The Byzantine Text has ÎºÎ±Î¹ starting in vs. 16, which could suggest the quote continues, but I don't think that is the case because of context.
RKBentley wrote:Who's speaking in 16-18? Is it John the Baptist or the apostle John? If it's John B, the Î¿Ì”ÍÏ„Î¹ could introduce his quote. If it's the apostle, I guess Î¿Ì”ÍÏ„Î¹ should be translated (and, because, or something).
I would say two things must be kept in mind to resolve the question. 1) The á½Ï„Î¹ that occurs in verses 16 and 17, and also 2) the didactic nature of John Chapter 1. John starts the book out as a Christological treatise. He has already pointed out that 1) Jesus is God (Jn 1:1), 2) Creator (Jn. 1:3) 3) that He is the "light" (Jn. 1:9), 4) that through him we become adopted into God's family (Jn. 1:12-14), and finally that very God became ver man (Jn. 1:14). In the next few verses John expands his discussion about Christ to show that He has provided us with the means of grace and supplanted the Mosaic Law.
John Chapter 1 is the most interesting Chapter in the book IMHO. John lays all of his theology out in the first chapter, and the threads of this theology run through the rest of his Book. John also almost always
introduces a quote with á½Ï„Î¹ PLUS a verbfor speaking (usually Î»ÎµÎ³Ï‰) when he is making a quote.
Hope this helps answer the question. Sometimes, the issues (such as this one) cannot be soley addressed by the Greek context.