ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, ὅσα á¼á½°Î½ δήσητε á¼Ï€á½¶ τῆς γῆς ἕσται δεδεμένα á¼Î½ οá½Ïανῷ, καὶ ὅσα á¼á½°Î½ λύσητε á¼Ï€á½¶ τῆς γῆς ἔσται λελυμένα á¼Î½ οá½Ïανῷ.
My question is concerning the time relationship between the two subjunctives (δήσητε, λύσητε) and the corresponding future perfects (ἕσται δεδεμένα, ἔσται λελυμένα.)
Do the various tenses say anything about when the binding in heaven occurrs in relation to when the binding took place on earth?
A different way of asking the same thing; When the Church binds something on earth, does Christ promise that this decision will be (future) backed up in heaven, or is he saying that the binding on earth (if it is done biblicaly of course) is in agreement with what God has already decided (perfect.)
I guess the difference can be expressed by translating the future perfect as ...will be bound in heaven... or ...will have already been bound in heaven...
Eagerly looking forward to a reply:

