Bert wrote:"By all the signs" seems to correspond fairly close to the Greek text. Is "in spite of all the signs" a valid rendering of á¼Î½ Ï€á¾¶ÏƒÎ¹Î½ Ï„Î¿á¿–Ï‚ ÏƒÎ·Î¼Îµá½·Î¿Î¹Ï‚ or is this English text (along with the Greek) a more or less accurate translation of the Hebrew, but the Greek and English don't correspond that closely?
Num 14:11 wrote:And he said the Lord unto Moses, â€œuntil where will they despise me, the people, these ones? And until where will they not trust in all the signs which I have made in their midstâ€
Hmmmm...Well my Hebrew is a bit rusty, but a very word for word (and wooden) translation of the Hebrew text would be (mind you this is word for word sustaining the Hebrew word order)...Num 14:11 wrote:And he said the Lord unto Moses, â€œuntil where will they despise me, the people, these ones? And until where will they not trust in all the signs which I have made in their midstâ€
The phrase "by all the signs" is a very accurate rendition of the Hebrew Text though...the Greek and Hebrew Prepositions are remarkably similar in their function. In spite of all the signs isn't very good as far as a word for word translation, but as far as a dynamic translation I think it is perfectly acceptable.
Sorry Bert....have I just rambled unendingly, or did I actually hit your question in there somewhere
You did the right thing.Kopio wrote:I was just so excited to see someone post on the Koine forum, I didn't know what to do!
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