In cunlliffe's lexicon, in the entry [face=SPIonic]u(pe/r[/face] it says [in form comp. fr. [face=SPIonic]u(po/[/face]]
Does this really mean that the one is (or was) a comparative form of the other?
Paul wrote:I'm not sure I understand quite how one gets 'under' from a root meaning 'on high, above'. Perhaps the latter always calls to mind the former, as in 'under high heaven'....
Kasper wrote:Similarly, but in latin, the word "altus, -a, - um" generally relates to something vertical. Eg. "altus mons" means a high mountain, and "altum flumen" a deep river.
Paul wrote:
But do Latin 'sub' and 'super' have a common ancestor?
Thucydides wrote:Sometimes I think we out to have a philology subforum or similar.
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