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a question in Iliad II

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a question in Iliad II

Postby WangWei » Wed Aug 02, 2006 4:35 am

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Postby IreneY » Wed Aug 02, 2006 8:12 am

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Postby perispomenon » Wed Aug 02, 2006 9:41 am

I had the same question. It seems some editions have a nominative here. There was also a note in one of the commentaries. I will look it up for you when I get home.
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Postby WangWei » Fri Aug 04, 2006 8:14 am

ach, I get it now, thank you Irene.
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Postby perispomenon » Fri Aug 04, 2006 8:25 am

? Well, I do not get that? When it is an accusative, then I do not understand it.

IreneY, could you perhaps explain some more? The second sentence is dependent on the first, after all.
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Postby IreneY » Fri Aug 04, 2006 12:44 pm

Well the ὅσσοι is the subject of the second sentence isn't it? While quite often (if not most of the times) the relative pronoun takes the case of the word it's well, related to :) (in this case accusative), in this case it takes the case it should have: nominative.

Let's do a bit of analysis. (mind you I don't have the text in front of me now so I go with what I remember)

Sentence A)We, gather, the Trojans. Trojans is the object here so it is in accusative.

Sentence B) The Trojans live here. Trojans is the subject so it is in nominative.

I think it is clear if you think it in English. If we gathered the Trojans, who live here.

So the first (Trojans) has to be in accusative while the second has to be in nominative (not really but let's not complicate things).

The fact does remain that ὅσσοι refers to Trojans and the whole sentence is dependent. The case of the depenent word however is not determined by what it is related to but by what it's role within the sentence is (bar the exeption I mentioned first; this however is a quirk of the language that defies 'normal' syntactical rules)

Hope that makes some sense. It's too hot to think straight :(
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Postby perispomenon » Fri Aug 04, 2006 5:36 pm

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Postby GlottalGreekGeek » Fri Aug 04, 2006 6:28 pm

Another interpretation is that the accusative is used as the subject of an infinitive, which I know happens in Attic Greek, though I can't recall of hand if this happens in Homeric Greek or not.

(When a sentence makes sense in Greek, I generally don't think about the grammar too hard)
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Postby perispomenon » Fri Aug 04, 2006 6:33 pm

GlottalGreekGeek wrote:Another interpretation is that the accusative is used as the subject of an infinitive


An ACI (accusativus cum infinitivo), yes, I know it. I thought about that option, but it just seemed out of place here.

And well, I am a nitpicker, when it comes to grammar. It is my way to get inside a language. It works for me :-)
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Postby IreneY » Fri Aug 04, 2006 7:14 pm

Ok I think I got it now.

Trojans being the subject of the infinitve is different of the subject of the main verb (I said object before didn't I?)

We (both) vs Trojans. I too can't remember if the ACI appears or not in Homer though and I am currently away from home so it may take me some time to check it up.

It's a case of "if we all did this and if they did that" made into one sentence I guess.
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Postby WangWei » Thu Aug 10, 2006 4:36 am

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Postby Skylax » Sat Sep 02, 2006 10:14 am

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Postby AQUILANTE » Sun Sep 10, 2006 11:41 pm

please how i am write whit greek caracteres?
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Postby AQUILANTE » Sun Sep 10, 2006 11:41 pm

please how i am write whit greek caracteres?
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